Everyday Science Questions and Answers

Everyday Science Questions and Answers

1. An eye defect which usually results from an unequal curvature of the cornea is–
(A) nearsightedness (B) astigmatism
(C) colour blindness (D) night blindness
Ans : (B)

2. The velocity of sound in air (under normal conditions) is–
(A) 30 m / sec (B) 320 m / sec
(C) 332 m / sec (D) 3,320 m / sec
Ans : (C)

3. A photo-electric cell converts–
(A) sound energy into electrical energy (B) light energy into electrical energy
(C) an electrical signal into sound waves (D) electrical energy into light energy
Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following sounds cannot be heard by human ear?
(A) 300 vibrations / sec (B) 1,000 vibrations / sec
(C) 10,000 vibrations / sec (D) 30,000 vibrations / sec
Ans : (D)

5. Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because–
(A) the infra-red light kills bacteria in the body    
(B) resistance power increases
(C) the pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan
(D) the ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D
Ans : (D)

6. Small amounts of iodine are necessary in our diet to–
(A) prevent pellagra
(B) compensate for underactivity of the thyroid gland
(C) stimulate clotting of blood
(D) stimulate pituitary gland
Ans : (B)

7. On a sudden cardiac arrest, which of the following is advised as a first step to revive the functioning of human heart ?
(A) Mouth to mouth resuscitation (B) Giving external cardiac massage
(C) Sprinkling water on the face (D) Giving cool water to drink
Ans : (A)

8. A triode differs from a diode in the way that–
(A) it can amplify a signal (B) it has vacuum inside
(C) it has a heated cathode (D) its current is caused by the photoelectric effect
Ans : (A)

9. Radioactive substances can be produces readily in–
(A) an electron gun (B) an atomic pile
(C) a transistor (D) a Wilson cloud chamber
Ans : (B)

10. The method of estimating the age of the crust of the earth, which is now believed to be the most accurate, makes use of the rate of–
(A) accumulation of sedimentary beds  (B) accumulation of salt in the ocean
(C) atomic disintegration (radio-activity) (D) loss of heat by the earth
Ans : (C)

11. When a given amount of air is cooled–
(A) the amount of moisture it can hold decreases (B) its absolute humidity decreases
(C) its relative humidity remains constant  (D) its absolute humidity increases
Ans : (A)

12. With the present-day advancement in medical techniques, transplants are possible in all of the following except–
(A) artery (B) bone
(C) cornea (D) kidney
Ans : (B)

13. The reaction which converts sugar solution into alcohol is a example of–
(A) saponification (B) hydrogenation
(C) fermentation (D) hydrolysis
Ans : (C)

14. The Rh factor refers to–
(A) a protein substance found in the blood of some people
(B) a hormone carried by the blood
(C) the ratio of red corpuscles to white corpuscles in the blood
(D) a process that speeds up the clotting of blood
Ans : (A)

15. The greatest value of bees to mankind is in–
(A) supplying of food for birds
(B) insuring pollination of certain crop plants
(C) storing honey for man’s use
(D) furnishing beeswax needed in certain specialised industries
Ans : (B)

16. All of the following are examples of chemical changes except the–
(A) magnetising of iron (B) rusting of iron
(C) digestion of food (D) souring of milk
Ans : (A)

17. Cancer is a disease which–
(A) cannot be spread by those who have it
(B) is found only in human beings
(C) develops only in certain organs of the body
(D) is passed from generation to generation
Ans : (A)

18. The moon has no atmosphere because–
(A) no atmosphere has ever formed there
(B) the rocky surface completely absorbed the gases
(C) due to the low temperature, gases have condensed
(D) its gravitational pull is not strong enough to hold an atmosphere
 Ans : (D)

19. When a moving bus stops suddenly, the passengers are pushed forward because of the–
(A) friction between the earth and the bus
(B) friction between the passengers and the earth
(C) inertia of the passengers
(D) inertia of the bus
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following is not an attribute of bacterium ?
(A) Ability to arise from non-living matter (B) Growth
(C) Reproduction (D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

General Awareness : Solved Paper

General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star (B) Sirius A (C) Alpha Centauri A (D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)

2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately—
(A) 5•8% (B) 4•5% (C) 2•59% (D) 1•2%
Ans : (C)

3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess (B) Hockey (C) Badminton (D) Bridge
Ans : (A)

4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)

5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports (B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists (D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)


6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days (B) Six million miles (C) Six billion miles (D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)

7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia (B) Scandinavia (C) Netherlands (D) Australasia
Ans : (B)

8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar (B) Radar (C) Laser (D) Maser
Ans : (A)

9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376 (B) 370 (C) 368 (D) 390
Ans : (C)

10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn (B) Deluxe (C) Demor (D) Dewey
Ans : (D)

11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen (B) T. A. Edison (C) J. L. Baird (D) Berliner
Ans : (B)

12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love (B) Peace (C) Prophecy (D) Medicine
Ans : (C)

13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise (B) Rise (C) Barack (D) Telle
Ans : (A)

14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy (B) Poland (C) Spain (D) Sudan
Ans : (C)

15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills (B) Sparsh Ganga (C) Heaven (D) Amrit
Ans : (B)

16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt (B) Jhumpa Lahiri (C) Punam Suri (D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)

17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28 (B) February 21 (C) February 11 (D) February 4
Ans : (D)

18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called—
(A) Bali (B) Vidatha (C) Varman (D) Kara
Ans : (B)

19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells (B) Neutrophils (C) Lymphocytes (D) Platelets
Ans : (C)

20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol (B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol (D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)

National Defence Academy Examination 2008 General Ability Test : Solved Paper (Held on 20 April, 2008)

National Defence Academy Examination 2008
General Ability Test : Solved Paper
(Held on 20 April, 2008)

(ANTONYMS)

Directions—(Q. 1–8) Each of the following Eight items consists of a word or a group of words bold-capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite IN MEANING to the word or the group of words in bold-capital letters.

1. SINGULAR
(A) Nearby
(B) Ordinary
(C) Wide
(D) Modern

2. RECLUSE
(A) Criminal
(B) Wise
(C) Gregarious
(D) Timid

3. BE NO SLOUCH
(A) Inefficient
(B) Honest
(C) Saintly
(D) Well-known

4. OPPROBRIUM
(A) Very easy
(B) Suspenseful
(C) Modern
(D) Praise

5. SOLICITOUS
(A) Mild
(B) Showing no concern for
(C) Grateful
(D) Cheerful

6. UNDER DURESS
(A) Dry
(B) Volition
(C) Affluence
(D) Lack of commitment

7. LACONIC
(A) Sullen
(B) Handsome
(C) Verbose
(D) Sharp memory

8. SLOTHFUL
(A) Credulous
(B) Highly skilled
(C) Without resources
(D) Sprightly

(SYNONYMS)

Directions—(Q. 9–16) Each of the following Eightitems consists of a word in Bold-capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in Boldcapital letters.

9. EXACTION
(A) Accuracy
(B) Left-over portion
(C) Act of demanding strictly
(D) Ignorance

10. STRAFE
(A) To punish
(B) To strengthen
(C) To run away
(D) To work very hard

11. CONTEMPORANEOUS
(A) Irritating
(B) Artificial
(C) A very complicated problem
(D) Happening at the same time

12. HIATUS
(A) Uphill task
(B) Distant place
(C) Fading memory
(D) Gap

13. EXACERBATE
(A) To make something more severe
(B) To cause artificial shortage
(C) To assume false importance
(D) To flatter

14. MODICUM
(A) Basic
(B) Pertaining to earlier times
(C) Small quantity
(D) Annoying weather

15. FACTITIOUS
(A) Humorous
(B) Truthful
(C) Artificial
(D) Causing fatigue

16. DELECTATION
(A) Enjoyment
(B) Envy
(C) Inspiration
(D) Astuteness

(COMPREHENSION)

Directions—(Q. 17–25) In this Section, you have Three short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a Passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.

PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)

In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.

I. The author’s main point is that—
(A) different forms of life are found on earth
(B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life

J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position ?
(A) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(B) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death

Explanation :
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the
chief goals of all living beings”, which is answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is “The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (B). So (B) is the correct answer.

PASSAGE – I
For more than 3 decades, I achieved great success as a lawyer, till a stroke left my right side totally paralysed. Despite the doctor’s encouragement, I was consumed by rage and self-pity. I yearned to be active again. But what could a middle-age cripple like me do ? One day, glancing at some paintings I owned, I thought suddenly, “what about painting” ? In fact, I had always wanted to paint, but had never had the time. Now, I had plenty of time. In the last 25 years, I have completed 300 paintings—one of them appeared on the cover of the Reader’s Digest. The stroke, I realize, has helped me develop a latent talent and enjoy life.

17. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
While in the hospital, the author was—
(A) angry with himself for falling ill.
(B) relieved at the successful treatment.
(C) frustrated at his helpless situation.
(D) resentful at being hospitalized.

18. Why did the author consider himself a cripple?
(A) He could not go back to work.
(B) He could no longer use his right hand.
(C) He could not use his time properly.
(D) He could not lead an active life.

19. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The paralytic stroke helped the author—
(A) to face challenges in life successfully.
(B) to realize his latent talent.
(C) to learn a new hobby.
(D) to earn more money.

PASSAGE – II
“Westward Ho !” we shouted as the sail of our crudely constructed raft, the Kon-Tiki caught the wind. The sail quickly filled and the Kon-Tiki began to move. The six of us were off to our great adventure.
As night fell, the troughs of the sea grew gradually deeper and our first duel with the
elements began. Each time we heard the sudden deafening hiss of a roller closeby and saw a white crest come towards us out of the darkness, we held on tight and waited for the worst. But invariably the Kon-Tiki calmly swung up her stern and rose skyward unperturbed.

20. What does the word ‘duel’ in the passage mean ?
(A) A battle
(B) A fortification
(C) A two-side contest
(D) Divided in two

21. Which one of the following is correct ?
When big waves struck the raft the six people in it.
(A) Started crying.
(B) Showed courage and patience.
(C) Acted in a rash manner.
(D) Showed passiveness.

22. How was the Kon-Tiki’s performance on the high seas ?
(A) Very shaky
(B) Extremely poor
(C) Stable and resolute
(D) Unpredictable

PASSAGE – III
It was Sunday. As usual, there was a great rush of merry makers who had come to the river to swim or to bathe. Those who knew how to swim were jumping into the water from the high bridge or the banks of the deep river. Mohan did not know how to swim so he was merely watching others who were enjoying the fun of swimming. However on the insistence of his friend Swarn, he sat on his shoulders and both jumped into the water. Unable to carry Mohan along, Swarn left him in the flowing water. Mohan shouted for help. There were so many swimmers but nobody came to his rescue since they were indifferent to the plight of a stranger. I had just reached there, so I was in my full dress. Without undressing I jumped into the river and swam up to the drowning boy. Holding his left arm, I brought him out of water in a way that he might not hinder me from swimming safely. The boy was saved which won me great applause from the people. I had jumped into the water without any fear or hesitation as I knew the art of saving drowning persons. I had already saved a few lives from drowning.

23. Why did Swarn jump into the water carrying mohan on his shoulders ?
(A) Mohan had insisted to swim.
(B) He wanted to enjoy the fun of seeing a drowning man.
(C) He simply wanted to drown him in the river.
(D) Swarn felt that his friend should also enjoy the fun of swimming in the river.

24. Why did Swarn leave his friend Mohan in the waters ?
(A) Mohan wanted to learn how to swim.
(B) He wanted Mohan to learn how to swim.
(C) Because he was sure that Mohan would be able to swim across the river.
(D) Because he found it difficult to swim in the river with his friend on his shoulders.

25. Although there were many swimmers, why did nobody come forward to save the
drowning boy ?
(A) They wanted some financial reward.
(B) They did not know the art of saving a drowning person.
(C) They were not experts in the art of swimming.
(D) The river was very deep and they did not want to take a risk for a stranger.

Answers with Explanation
1. (B) ‘Singular’ means ‘extraordinary’.
2. (A) ‘Recluse’ means ‘hermit’
3. (A) ‘Be no slouch’ means ‘efficient’.
4. (D) ‘Opprobrium’ means ‘blamed.
5. (B) ‘Solicitous’ means ‘concerned’.
6. (B) ‘Under Duress’ means ‘under compulsion’.
7. (C) ‘Laconic’ means ‘terse’.
8. (D) ‘slothful’ means ‘lazy’.
9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A)
14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (B)
19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (D)
24. (D) 25. (D)

UPSC Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers

UPSC Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers

1. The shares in a co-operative society–
(A) can be sold (B) cannot be transferred
(C) can be transferred (D) none of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following planets and their moons are not correctly matched?
1. Jupiter Theme 2. Saturn Rhea
3. Mars Neried 4. Uranus Triton
5. Pluto Charon
(A) 1, 3 and 5 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 5 (D) 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

3. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun) reaches the earth in–
(A) 42 years (B) 42 seconds
(C) 4.2 years (D) 4.2 seconds
Ans : (C)

4. Which is the brightest star in the sky?
(A) Sirius (B) Alpha centauri
(C) Proxima centauri (D) Venus
Ans : (A)

5. Light from the sun reaches the earth in– (A) 8 minutes (B) 8 seconds
(C) 8 hours (D) 1 year
Ans : (A)

6. The new moon–
(A) rises at dawn and sets at sunset (B) rises at sunset and sets at dawn
(C) rises at noon and sets at midnight (D) rises at midnight and sets at noon
Ans : (A)

7. Which one of the following pairs of travellers and nationalities is correctly matched?
(A) Abdur Razzaq : Arab (B) Nicolo Conti : Dutch
(C) Nuniz : Italian (D) Domingo Paes : Portuguese
Ans : (A)

8. The Inscriptions of Ashoka are written in–
I. Greek II. Kharosthi
III Arabic IV. Sanskrit
(A) I, II and IV (B) I, II and III
(C) II and III (D) II, III and IV
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following is not one of the animals carved on the Sarnath Pillar?
(A) Elephant (B) Horse
(C) Deer (D) Humped bull
Ans : (C)

10. ‘Dhamma’ or ‘Law of Piety’–
(A) had the essence of all religions
(B) was a revolt against inefficiency in the Buddhist Sangha.
(C) was a new religion which Ashoka founded
(D) laid emphasis on following a mild religious policy
Ans : (A)

11. Consider the following literary works–
I. Kumara Sambhavam II. Mudraraksasa
III. Raghuvamsa IV. Ritusamhara
Which of these were the works of Kalidas?
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV (D) I, II and IV
Ans : (C)

12. Who was the political Guru of Netaji?
(A) Patel (B) Gokhale
(C) C.R. Das (D) Tilak
Ans : (C)

13. In which year did the Congress Party form the Government under the British Rule?
(A) 1937 (B) 1939
(C) 1936 (D) 1938
Ans : (A)

14. Who was the editor of the Magazine ‘Harijan’?
(A) M. K. Gandhiji (B) Tilak
(C) Bharathiyar (D) Motilal
Ans : (A)

15. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, 1919 occurred at–
(A) Meerut (B) Panipat
(C) Amritsar (D) Patiala
Ans : (C)

16. In a sense the political guru of Gandhiji was–
(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji (D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans : (B)

17. How is the change in government in modern State carried out?
(A) Through violence and bloodshed
(B) Through compromise and electoral adjustments among the competing forces
(C) Through elections and smooth transfer of power
(D) By bringing all aspects of life to a standstill
Ans : (C)

18. The President of India must have completed the age of–
(A) 25 years (B) 35 years
(C) 30 years (D) 40 years
Ans : (B)

19. The President of India by order constitutes a Finance Commission every–
(A) third year (B) fifth year
(C) fifth year or earlier as necessary (D) seventh year
Ans : (B)

20. As per the Constitution of India, the intervening period between two sessions of Parliament should not be more than–
(A) one year (B) nine months
(C) six months (D) three months
Ans : (C)

21. In an election, electioneering has to cease in a constituency–
(A) 2 days before the poll (B) 48 hours before the commencement of polling
(C) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling (D) 24 hours before the poll
Ans : (C)

22. When the goods are imported for the purpose of export, it is called–
(A) import (B) export
(C) entrepot (D) none of these
Ans : (C)

23. Cash paid to the creditors can be calculated from–
(A) Debtors account (B) Creditors account
(C) Balance Sheet (D) Bank account
Ans : (C)

24. The Profit and Loss of a Partnership concern is shared among the partners–
(A) equally (B) in agreed ratio
(C) in capital ratio (D) none of these
Ans : (B)

25. The Dividend is declared in–
(A) Annual General Body Meeting (B) Statutory Meeting
(C) Director’s Meeting (D) Shareholder’s Meeting
Ans : (A)

Computer Knowledge Questions Answers for IBPS PO Exams

Computer Knowledge Questions Answers for IBPS PO Exams


1. IT stands for–
(A) Information Technology (B) Integrated Technology
(C) Intelligent Technology (D) Interesting Technology (Ans : A)

2. Sending an E-mail is similar to–
(A) picturing an event (B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter (D) creating a drawing (Ans : C)

3. A keyboard is this kind of device–
(A) black (B) input (C) output  (D) word processing (Ans : B)

4. Arithmetic operations–
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR, and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division (Ans : D)

5. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a–
(A) title bar (B) button (C) dialogue box (D) window (Ans : D)

6. ……….is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching (B) Storing (C) Executing (D) Decoding (Ans : C)

7. Delivery Channel means–
(A) maternity wards (B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers (D) All of these (Ans : C)

8. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware (B) Software (C) Programs (D) Output (Ans : A)

9. A printer is this kind of device–
(A) input (B) word processing (C) processing (D) output (Ans : D)

10. This can be another word for program–
(A) software (B) disk (C) floppy (D) hardware (Ans : A)

11. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily?
(A) Minicomputers (B) Supercomputers (C) PCs (D) Laptop's (Ans : D)

12. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs–
(A) password (B) passport (C) entry-code (D) access-code (Ans : A)

13. A hard copy of a document is–
(A) printed on the printer (B) stored on a floppy (C) stored on a CD
(D) stored in the hard disk (Ans : A)

14. The name that the user gives to a document is referred to as–
(A) document-name (B) filename
(C) name-given (D) document-identity (Ans : B)

15. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a–
(A) programmer (B) computer scientist (C) software engineer (D) project developer (Ans : A)

16. The information you put into the computer is called–
(A) facts (B) data (C) flies (D) directory (Ans : B)

17. Hardware includes–
(A) all devices used to input data into a computer
(B) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(C) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data
(D) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage (Ans : C)

18. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is through the use of a–
(A) keyboard (B) scanner (C) printer (D) plotter (Ans : A)

19. The most important or powerful computer in a typical network–
(A) desktop (B) network client (C) network server (D) network station (Ans : C)

20. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into–
(A) Web sites (B) Information (C) Programs (D) Objects (Ans : B)

21. You can use the tab key to–
(A) move a cursor across the screen (B) indent a paragraph
(C) move the cursor down the screen (D) Only (1) and (B) (Ans : D)

22. A collection of related files is called a–
(A) character (B) field (C) database (D) record (Ans : D)

23. ……….is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Compiling (B) Testing (C) Running (D) Debugging (Ans : B)

24. A ……….contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) syntax (B) programming structure (C) programming language (D) logic chart (Ans : A)

25. Virtual memory is–
(A) memory on the hard disk that the CPU uses as extended RAM (B) in RAM
(C) only necessary if you do not have any RAM in your computer. (D) a backup device for floppy disks (Ans : A)

Biology : Solved Paper

Biology : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)


6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH2
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)

Agriculture General Knowledge Objective Questions

Agriculture General Knowledge Objective Questions

1. The main advantage of 'PVC' pipes for drainage is the feasibility of—
(A) Mechanical laying (B) Physical laying
(C) Chemical laying (D) Physical, chemical laying both (Ans : A)

2. 'ESCORT' tractor is manufactured at—
(A) Faridabad (B) Ghaziabad
(C) Kanpur (D) Chennai (Ans : A)

3. Soil erosion by wind brings about the serious damage in soil by changing the—
(A) Soil permeability (B) Soil structure
(C) Soil texture (D) Soil plasticity (Ans : C)

4. High compression petrol engines are used in some tractors and have high performance in—
(A) U.S.A. (B) Germany
(C) Japan (D) Holland (Ans : A)

5. The distribution of fertilizers by aircraft is widely practised in—
(A) England (B) France
(C) Gennany (D) New Zealand (Ans : D)

6. A 2- row potato harvester, working in good conditions with 4 to 5 men on the machine, can do how much hectare per day ?
(A) 0.5-0.6 ha (B) 1.2-1.4 ha
(C) 2.5 ha (D) 1.8-1.9 ha (Ans : B)

7. Mole drainage is practised extensively in country—
(A) New Zealand (B) Japan
(C) U.S.A. (D) China (Ans : A)

8. Which is not included in the sources of energy, getting for agricultural work ?
(A) Diesel engine (B) Electric motor
(C) Bullocks (D) Cow (Ans : D)

9. Which is included in dairy equipments ?
(A) Threshers (B) Lactometer
(C) Cane Planter (D) Winnowers (Ans : B)

10. In our country, for the manufacturing of agricultural implements tools, mostly wood is used, because—
(A) Easy available at all the places (B) Wood is cheaper
(C) Easy to repare tools made-up of wooden, compound to metal tools
(D) Above (A) to (C) are correct (Ans : D)

11. Which of the following wood is not used for making handle of spade ?
(A) Sheesham (B) Babool
(C) Neem (D) Mango (Ans : A)

12. Soil turning plough makes the furrow of which type (shape) ?
(A) 'V' shape (B) 'L' shape
(C) 'O' shape (D) No definite shape (Ans : B)

13. Which of the following is one (single) handed soil turning plough ?
(A) Punjab plough (B) Praja plough
(C) Victory plough (D) U. P. No.1 plough (Ans : B)

14. The purpose of tillage is/are—
(A) Soil clods breaking and suppressing in soil (B) Eradication of weeds
(C) Leveling of soil (D) Above (A), (B) and (C) (Ans : D)

15. The main function of cultivator is—
(A) To turn the soil (B) To make furrow in soil
(C) To pulverize the soil (D) All above three functions (Ans : C)

16. Bakhar is generally used in—
(A) U. P. (B) Bundelkhand
(C) Vindhya Pradesh (D) In all the States/parts of India (in All India) (Ans : B)

17. Harrow is drawn by—
(A) Bullocks (B) Tractor
(C) Diesel (D) Bullocks and Tractor both (Ans : D)

18. Which of the following is not a secondary tillage implement ?
(A) Cultivators (B) Harrow
(C) Hoe (D) Meston plough (Ans : D)

19. The term 'Olpad' in 'Olpad Thresher' is named on the name of—
(A) Scientist (B) Village
(C) Labourer (D) Farmer (Ans : B)

20. Which of the following 'hoe' is bullock drawn ?
(A) Akola hoe (B) Sharma hoe
(C) Wheel hoe (D) Naini type hoe (Ans : A)

21. The land levelling implement is—
(A) Patela (B) Roller
(C) Scrapper (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

22. Patela is used for—
(A) Sowing (B) Levelling
(C) Earthing (D) Weeding (Ans : B)

23. Which of the material is not used for making rollers ?
(A) Wood (B) Stone
(C) Iron (D) Steel (Ans : D)

24. In which condition, roller is used ?
(A) Where soil is wet (B) Where clods are present in soil
(C) Where soil is friable (D) None of the above (Ans : D)

25. Which one of the following work is not done by scrappers ?
(A) For levelling of soil (B) For making irrigation channels
(C) For covering the sown-seeds by earth (D) For making ridges (Ans : C)

26. Dibbler is used for—
(A) Ploughing (B) Seed sowing
(C) Levelling of land (D) Interculture (Ans : B)

27. The minimum expenditure is incurred by implements for sowing seeds among the following—
(A) Deshi plough (B) Cultivator
(C) Dibbler (D) Seed-drill (Ans : D)

28. Which of the following tool is used for measuring the draft of agricultural implements?
(A) Dynamometer (B) Hydrometer
(C) Galvanometer (D) Barometer (Ans : A)

29. Which of the following does not affect the draft of ploughs ?
(A) Width of furrow (B) Depth of furrow
(C) Length of furrow (D) Soil moisture (Ans : C)

30. Swing-basket (Dhenkuli) is used for—
(A) Making furrow (B) Lifting water from wells
(C) Destroying weeds (D) Leveling of land (Ans : B)

31. Which of the following is used maximum for lifting water from wells ?
(A) Persian wheel (Rahat) (B) Swing basket (Bedi)
(C) Dhenkuli (D) Don (Ans : A)

32. Which of the following is used for lifting water from 8-10 m depth ?
(A) Washer Rahat (B) Hand pump
(C) Mayadar lift (D) None of the above (Ans : D)

33. In which implement. bullocks are not used for lifting water ?
(A) Buldev Balti (B) Charsa
(C) Egyptian screw (D) Rahat (Persian wheel) (Ans : C)

34. The working efficiency per day of deshi plough is—
(A) 0.3 ha (B) 0.4 ha
(C) 0.6 ha (D) 0.8 ha (Ans : B)

35. Which of the method of ploughing is mostly practised ?
(A) Outside to inside ploughing (B) Inside to outside ploughing
(C) Ploughing by putting furrow from one side of field (D) Ploughing by halai making (Ans : D)

36. The best method of ploughing through deshi plough is—
(A) Outside to inside ploughing (B) Inside to outside ploughing
(C) Ploughing by making halai (D) Ploughing by making furrow from one side of field (Ans : C)

37. How much is the working efficiency of dibbler (ha per day) ?
(A) 0.15 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.35 (D) 0.45 (Ans : A)

38. Tillage includes—
(A) Ploughing of land (B) Keep the land free from weeds
(C) Make the soil levelled (D) All of the above operations (Ans : D)

39. Function of the seed-drill is—
(A) Making furrow (B) Dropping seeds
(C) Covering the seeds in furrow (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

40. Wrought iron contains carbon (per cent) —
(A) 0.05-1% (B) 1-2%
(C) 2-3% (D) 3-4% (Ans : A)

41. The mould-board of a tractor drawn soil turning plough is the type of—
(A) General purpose (B) Stubble
(C) Sod (breaker) (D) High speed (Ans : D)

42. Among the following, ridger is not used in crop—
(A) Maize (B) Gram
(C) Potato (D) Sugarcane (Ans : B)

43. Belt mostly used is of types—
(A) Rubber (B) Kirmich
(C) Leather (D) Cotton thread (Ans : A)

44. The major defects of rubber belts are—
(A) Costly (B) Slips on wet
(C) Early rubbed (D) Increased due to heat (Ans : B)

45. How many m.m. are in one foot length ?
(A) 304.8 (B) 404.8
(C) 204.8 (D) 104.8 (Ans : A)

46. The grooved pulleys are made-up of—
(A) Steel (B) Cast iron
(C) Wooden (D) Above (A) and (B) both (Ans : D)

47. A general farmer used deshi plough for the purpose of—
(A) Land ploughing (B) Collecting weeds
(C) Making soil powdery (D) Above all works (Ans : D)

48. Which of the following is best for driving machine from low power to slow speed ?
(A) Belts and pulley (B) Spur gear
(C) Toothed wheel and chains (D) None of the above (Ans : A)

49. Reapers are used for—
(A) Crop cutting (B) Threshing of harvested crop produce (lank)
(C) Seeds sowing (D) Fodder cutting (Ans : A)

50. Threshers (except Olpad threshers) are driven by—
(A) One pair of bullocks (B) Two pair of bullocks
(C) Diesel (D) All of the above (Ans : C)

51. Winnowing it called—
(A) Cutting a crop (B) To separate straw etc. from threshed lank
(C) To thresh (D) Cutting the fodder (Ans : B)

52. Chaff-cutter is driven by—
(A) Hand (B) Bullocks
(C) Electric power (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

53. Sugarcane juice is extracted (%) from canes through bullock-drawn cane-crusher—
(A) 50-55 (B) 70-75
(C) 25-30 (D) 60-65 (Ans : D)

54. 'Olpad' thresher is used in—
(A) Oil extraction from mustard, toria etc. (B) Extracting juice from cane
(C) Threshing of wheat, barley, pea etc. (D) All (A), (B) and (C) (Ans : C)

55. 'Seed dresser' is used for—
(A) Mixing/treating seeds with chemicals (B) Sowing seeds at proper distance
(C) Making seeds of high grade (D) Keeping seeds effective upto longer period (Ans : A)

56. 'Try square' is used by—
(A) Blacksmith (B) Carpenter
(C) Potter (D) Farmers (Ans : B)

57. Which type of saw is not included ?
(A) Cross cut saw (B) Deshi saw
(C) Tenon saw (D) Teething saw (Ans : D)

58. Which type of saw, used for cutting round shape in hole ?
(A) Fret saw (B) Penal saw
(C) Tenon saw (D) Key hole saw (Ans : D)

59. 'Draw-Knife' is used for—
(A) To fit galua in grinder (B) Making round the corners of wood
(C) Smoothing the base of wood (D) Sharping teeth of saw (Ans : B)

60. The tool used for making deep pit in wood is—
(A) Adge (B) Saw
(C) Draw knife (D) Chisel (Ans : D)

61. The main work of 'scrapper' is—
(A) For cutting the wood (B) For scrapping the wood
(C) For smoothing the wood (D) All of the above (Ans : C)

62. 'File' is used for—
(A) Scrapping the wood (B) Cutting the wood
(C) Forcing the wood (D) Making equal by scrapping the wood (Ans : D)

63. The type of file is generally—
(A) Round (B) Triangular
(C) Flate (D) Above all types (Ans : D)

64. Brace machine is used for—
(A) Making hole in wood (B) Scrapping the wood
(C) For smoothing the wood (D) None of these (Ans : A)

65. Which one machine/tool is not used in making hole in wood ?
(A) Ordinary drill (B) Hand drill
(C) Pincer (D) Twist bit (Ans : C)

66. 'Bar cramp' is a tool of—
(A) Wood cutting (B) Catching tightly wood
(C) Beating tool (D) Smoothing tool (Ans : B)

67. Nail (Keel) pulling is done by—
(A) Claw-hammer (B) Pincer
(C) Plier (D) All of these Ans : (E)

68. 'Forging' is said—
(A) Heating the iron (B) Beating the hot iron
(C) Converting into desired shape by beating the iron (D) Beating iron and making hole in it (Ans : C)

69. 'Anvil' (Nihai) is used for—
(A) Beating the iron on keeping over this (B) By beating iron through this
(C) Heating iron through handling this (D) Cooling of hot iron (Ans : A)

70. Fire is pulled-up through—
(A) Poker (B) Sewage block
(C) Showel (D) Anvil (Ans : A)

71. 'Sledge' is used to—
(A) Lift heavy material (B) Fire furnace
(C) Cut the iron in cold condition (D) Cut the iron in hot condition (Ans : A)

72. The roller of cane-crusher is made-up of which steel ?
(A) Cast iron (B) Gun metal
(C) High carbon steel (D) Wrought iron (Ans : A)

73. The tool use for catching (handling) the claw and turning it hither and thither during beating is called—
(A) Sewage block (B) Chisel
(C) Plier (D) Tongs (Ans : D)

74. Punches are of—
(A) Two types (B) Three types
(C) Four types (D) Several types (Ans : B)

75. Agricultural tractors are generally having horse power (h.p.) —
(A) 20-50 (B) 50-70
(C)10-15 (D) 20-25 (Ans : A)

76. A three-tine furrow plough is ploughing at a speed of 2 km/hr and the each furrow size is 20 cm wide and 12 cm deep furrow. How much time, it would require to plough 5 hectare land ?
(A) 41 hours 40 minutes (B) 40 hours 55 minutes
(C) 20 hours 55 minutes (D) None of these (Ans : A)

77. If a gear 'A', having 50 teeth and running at a speed of 200 r.p.m. is driving to another gear 'B' having 125 r.p.m. How many number of teeth in gear' B' ?
(A) 500 (B) 400
(C) 80 (D) 60 (Ans : C)

78. Animal driven cane planter is developed by—
(A) ICAR (B) CIAE
(C) IISR (D) IARI (Ans : C)

79. A 10 cm wide belt is running at a speed of 900 r.p.m. If the 15 H. P. is available, then how much plies of belt ?
(A) 3 (B) 10
(C) 6 (D) 4 (Ans : D)

80. How much width belt would be needed if 20 H. P. is to be transferred through a belt of 10 plies, where speed of belt is 1460 r.p.m. ?
(A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 5 cm (D) 6 cm (Ans : B)

81. A 10 cm wide belt, having the speed of 1350 meter per minute, would be appropriate to transfer the how much H. P. ?
(A) 20 (B) 15
(C) 25 (D) 40 (Ans : B)

82. A tractor driving pulley has its 25 cm diameter and revolving at a speed of 960 r.p.m. If on the shaft of a thresher, an attached pulley is revolving at a speed of 1600 r.p.m. what would be the diameter of this pulley ?
(A) 16 cm (B) 15 cm
(C) 12 cm (D) 20 cm (Ans : C)

83. A pulley of 21 cm diameter and revolving at 1600 r.p.m. Find out the speed of the belt running over it—
(A) 1120 m/minute (B) 1200 m/minute
(C) 1056 m/minute (D) None of these (Ans : B)

84. If the distance between two pullies, having the diameter of 45 cm and 39 cm, is 3.2 metre, then what would be length of required flate belt ?
(A) 6.8 m (B) 7.72 m
(C) 9.4 m (D) 7.2 m (Ans : B)

85. Two pair of bullocks are ploughing a field by victory ploughs at a speed of 2 km/hr. If the average width of each furrow is 25 cm. How much time will be required to plough one hectare land? Where after each two hours working, 20 minutes rest is required to provide ?
(A) 10 hours (B) 8 hours
(C) 11 hours 40 minutes (D) 8 hours 20 minutes (Ans : C)

86. If the relative distance is 2.5 metre of centre points of two pullies, having SO cm and 25 cm diameters, then, how much length (metre) of 'V' belt would be required ?
(A) 6.18875 (B) 5.18775
(C) 6.28775 (D) 6.18775 (Ans : D)

87. A 'chain' contains how much metre ?
(A) 20.1168 (B) 21.1168
(C) 15.1168 (D) 18.1168 (Ans : A)

88. If the rate of electricity is rupee one per unit, then, a 20 h. p. electric motor, having approx. 100% efficiency will require how much cost (Rs.) on 100 hours running to irrigate the field ?
(A) 500 (B) 750
(C) 1500 (D) 2000 (Ans : C)

89. 'Drip' irrigation is generally followed in the country—
(A) Israel (B) America
(C) Australia (D) Japan (Ans : A)

90. In India, under canal net-work system of irrigation, generally, how much amount of water is allowed to run in small canal ?
(A) Less than 4 cusec (B) Less than 10 cusec
(C) Between 15 to 20 cusec (D) Between 25 to 30 cusec (Ans : B)

91. Method of irrigation is—
(A) Surface irrigation (B) Sprinkler irrigation
(C) Drip irrigation (D) All of these (Ans : D)

92. The Torque—a power to generate revolutions is expressed as (its unit is kg metre) —
(A) Length of arm (m) x Force (kg) (B) Length of arm (cm) x Force (kg)
(C) Length of arm (m) x Force (g) (D) Length of arm (rom) x Force (mg) (Ans : A)

93. Work is expressed by the formula as—
(A) Work = Force (kg) x Distance (m) (B) Work = Force (g) x Distance (m)
(C) Work = Force (mg) x Distance (m) (D) Work = Force (kg) x Distance (cm) (Ans : A)

94. The length of 'Engineer chain' is—
(A) 100 ft (B) 80 ft
(C) 20 ft (D) None of these (Ans : A)

95. The length of 'Gunter chain' is—
(A) 66 ft (B) 100 ft
(C) 20 ft (D) 90 ft (Ans : A)

96. The area of an acre is—
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.80
(C) 1.10 (D) None of these (Ans : D)

97. One centimetre is equal to—
(A) 5 mm (B) 10 mm
(C) 15 mm (D) None of these (Ans : B)

98. The draft of 'Victory plough' is—
(A) 80-100 kg (B) 40-50 kg
(C) 70-80 kg (D) 10-20 kg (Ans : A)

99. How much horse power (h.p.) is in one kW (Kilowatt) ?
(A) 1.34 (B) 1.90
(C) 2.00 (D) 3.80 (Ans : A)

100. Man power is considered equal to how much horse power (h.p.) ?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.4 (Ans : A)

Mental Ability

Mental Ability
1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35

2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33

3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class

4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee

5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion

6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless

Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these

8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y

9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I

10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL

11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book

12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter

13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala

14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP

15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition

16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G

17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9

18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX

19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56

20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI

21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT

22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD

23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334

24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink

25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South

26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South

27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena

28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these

29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these

30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson

31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday

32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.

33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55

34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th

35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra

37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December

38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran

39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon

40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM

42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC

43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim

44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack

Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange

46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail

47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom

48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star

49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee

50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal

Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.

Biology : Solved Paper

Biology : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?

(A) Selaginella

(B) Equisetum

(C) Lycopodium

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—

(A) Female gametophyte

(B) Sporocarp

(C) Sporophyte

(D) Male gametophyte

Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—

(A) Solenostele

(B) Protostele

(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele

(D) All of these

Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—

(A) Root like

(B) Stem like

(C) Both root and stem like

(D) Rhizoid like

Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—

(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally

(B) All leaves large

(C) All leaves small

(D) All of these

Ans : (A)

6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—

(A) Mesophyte 

(B) Xerophyte

(C) Hydrophyte 

(D) Epiphyte

Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—

(A) Cycas 

(B) Pinus

(C) Ephedra 

(D) Gnetum

Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—

(A) Tree 

(B) Shrub

(C) Herb 

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—

(A) Cenozoic 

(B) Mesozoic

(C) Proterozoic 

(D) Archeozoic

Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—

(A) Igneous rocks 

(B) Quartz

(C) Soil 

(D) Sedimentary rocks

Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—

(A) Glycogen 

(B) Starch

(C) Sucrose 

(D) Maltose

Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?

(A) Pteris

(B) Dryopteris

(C) Salvinia 

(D) Adiantum

Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?

(A) Similar substrate 

(B) Glycolysis

(C) Pyruvic acid 

(D) All of these

Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—

(A) Coal 

(B) Petroleum

(C) Cedarwood 

(D) Pinus

Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?

(A) Chlamydomonas 

(B) Chlorella

(C) Chara 

(D) Volvox

Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?

(A) Marigold 

(B) Chrysanthemum

(C) Rose 

(D) Sunflower

Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—

(A) Cotton 

(B) Tomato

(C) Tobacco 

(D) Rice

Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—

(A) Pollen culture

(B) Embryo culture

(C) Protoplast culture

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?

(A) Ecotype 

(B) Species

(C) Genus 

(D) Order

Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—

(A) Systema Naturae

(B) Species Plantarum

(C) Genera Plantarum

(D) Philosophia Botanica

Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?

(A) Ca 

(B) Na

(C) Mg 

(D) Mn

Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—

(A) Leaf tip necrosis

(B) Small leaves disease

(C) Decreased protein synthesis

(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves

Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—

(A) Naturally produced

(B) Synthetic substance

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—

(A) Leaflets

(B) Stipules

(C) Pulvinus leaf base

(D) Petiole and stem

Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—

(A) Cold climate

(B) Absence of leaf fall

(C) Leaves falling in small number interval

(D) Supply of moisture throughout year

Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—

(A) 15 : 1 

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 

(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—

(A) Ionosphere 

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Stratosphere 

(D) Troposphere

Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?

(A) CO2 

(B) CO

(C) SO2 

(D) Hydrocarbon

Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—

(A) Histones 

(B) Lipoproteins

(C) Hydrocarbons 

(D) Polynucleotides

Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—

(A) Odum 

(B) Tansley

(C) Whitker 

(D) Goli

Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—

(A) Filiform larva

(B) Rhabditiform larva

(C) Miracidium larva

(D) Microfilariae

Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—

(A) Protein only

(B) DNA and protein

(C) DNA, RNA and histone

(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins

Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?

(A) Kupffer cells 

(B) Aciner cells

(C) Diter cells 

(D) Hensen's cells

Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—

(A) Salivary glands

(B) Cells in the midgut

(C) Symbiotic protozoa

(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body

Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—

(A) Fertilized eggs

(B) Unfertilized eggs

(C) Larvae fed upon leaves

(D) Fasting larvae

Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—

(A) Smell 

(B) Burrowing

(C) Touch 

(D) Vision

Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—

(A) Tissue grade

(B) Organ grade

(C) Cellular grade

(D) Organ system grade

Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—

(A) Heparin 

(B) Hirudin

(C) Insulin 

(D) Pepsin

Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—

(A) Procytes 

(B) Pinacocytes

(C) Scleroblasts 

(D) Thesocytes

Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—

(A) Amphibia 

(B) Reptilia

(C) Birds 

(D) Mammalia

Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—

(A) Pterobranchia 

(B) Larvacea

(C) Ascidiacea 

(D) Thaliacea

Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—

(A) Paramecium 

(B) Entamoeba

(C) Amoeba 

(D) Trypanosoma

Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—

(A) In fresh water

(B) In sea water near the shore

(C) In deep sea

(D) At the bottom of the sea

Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—

(A) Obelia 

(B) Silkmoth

(C) Taenia 

(D) Nereis

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?

(A) Bile 

(B) Gastric juice

(C) Saliva 

(D) Pancreatic juice

Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—

(A) Female Culex 

(B) Female Anopheles

(C) Female Aedes 

(D) Housefly

Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—

(A) Tonoplast 

(B) Cell wall

(C) Plasma layer 

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—

(A) Devonian 

(B) Ordovician

(C) Crustaceous 

(D) Silurian

Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—

(A) Plasmodium vivax

(B) Plasmodium malariae

(C) Plasmodium ovale

(D) Plasmodium falciparum

Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—

(A) John Ray 

(B) Mayer

(C) J. Huxley 

(D) C. Linnaeus

Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—

(A) 20 hours old 

(B) 22 hours old

(C) 24 hours old 

(D) 18 hours old

Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—

(A) Blastula 

(B) Gastrula

(C) Morula 

(D) Neurula

Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—

(A) Lysosome

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Golgi Body

(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—

(A) E.G. Balbiani 

(B) Kollar

(C) Heitz 

(D) Bauer

Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—

(A) Animal cells 

(B) Red algae

(C) Prokaryotes 

(D) Flowering plants

Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—

(A) Arthropoda 

(B) Annelida

(C) Mollusca 

(D) Platyhelminthes

Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—

(A) Spongella 

(B) Grantia

(C) Euplectella

(D) Euspongia

Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—

(A) Excretory system

(B) Digestive system

(C) Circulatory system

(D) Respiratory system

Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—

(A) Sheep 

(B) Snail

(C) Man 

(D) Bird

Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—

(A) Birds 

(B) Tunicates

(C) Fishes 

(D) Mammals

Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—

(A) Hill Emerson 

(B) Emerson

(C) Blackmann 

(D) Hatch and Slack

Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—

(A) Thylakoids

(B) Photoglobin

(C) Matrix

(D) Envelope of chloroplast

Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—

(A) Green light 

(B) Blue light

(C) Red light 

(D) White light

Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—

(A) ATP 

(B) Carbohydrate

(C) NADH2 

(D) P-700

Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?

(A) 36 

(B) 28

(C) 12 

(D) 18

Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—

(A) De Candolle 

(B) Hooker

(C) Linnaeus 

(D) Aristotle

Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—

(A) Somatic cells 

(B) Germ cells

(C) Plasma proteins 

(D) Somatic DNA

Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—

(A) In being living

(B) In being derived from a single cell

(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved

(D) Because they conduct water

Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?

(A) Walnut 

(B) Cashewnut

(C) Groundnut 

(D) Coconut

Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—

(A) Disintegrates

(B) Moves into cytoplasm

(C) Replicates itself

(D) Reassociates to form its structure

Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—

(A) Acclimatzation 

(B) Pasteurization

(C) Preservation 

(D) Tyndallization

Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—

(A) Pteridology 

(B) Palaeobotany

(C) Neurology 

(D) Archaeology

Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—

(A) Allahabad 

(B) Delhi

(C) Mumbai 

(D) Lucknow

Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—

(A) Cycas 

(B) Sequoia

(C) Pinus

(D) Selaginella

Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?

(A) Utricularia 

(B) Agaricus

(C) Lichen 

(D) Mango

Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?

(A) Rhynia

(B) Selaginella

(C) Equisetum 

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—

(A) Homosporic pteridophyte

(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte

(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte

(D) Seeded pteridophyte

Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—

(A) Heterospory 

(B) Seed habit

(C) Homospory 

(D) All of these

Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—

(A) Male cone

(B) Female cone

(C) Male and female cones

(D) All of these

Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—

(A) 4 

(B) 2

(C) 3 

(D) 1

Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—

(A) Aquatic 

(B) Terrestrial

(C) Amphibious 

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—

(A) Algae 

(B) Pteridophyta

(C) Fungi 

(D) Bryophyta

Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—

(A) Gamete 

(B) Spore

(C) Elater 

(D) Zygote

Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—

(A) Antheridium 

(B) Columella

(C) Capsule 

(D) Archegonium

Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—

(A) Archegonia

(B) Lack of vascular tissue

(C) Independent gametophyte

(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—

(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid

(B) Hexane and methane

(C) Acetic acid and bromine

(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid

Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—

(A) Protein synthesis

(B) Photosynthesis

(C) Fat synthesis

(D) Respiration

Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—

(A) Alwayss inverted

(B) Always upright

(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright

(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—

(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation

(B) A hormone

(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond

(D) A protein

Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?

(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus

(B) Absence of cell organelles

(C) Absence of genetic material

(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome

Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?

(A) Phosphorus-32 

(B) Sulphur-35

(C) Strontium-90 

(D) Calcium-40

Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is—

(A) Lichen 

(B) Fern

(C) Black mould 

(D) Moss

Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—

(A) Wolf

(B) Rudolf Virchow

(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail

(D) Schleiden and Schwann

Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—

(A) There is little glycogen in the body

(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant

(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed

(D) Intake of protein is high

Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—

(A) Histolysis

(B) Digestion of proteins

(C) Glycogenesis

(D) Maintaining salt balance

Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—

(A) Maxillary teeth

(B) Specialized structures

(C) Premaxillary teeth

(D) Vomerine teeth

Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—

(A) Homologous organs

(B) Analogous organs

(C) Unrelated organs

(D) Vestigeal organs

Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—

(A) January, 30 

(B) April, 21

(C) September, 16 

(D) December, 5

Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?

(A) Archaeopteryx 

(B) Peripatus

(C) Neopilina 

(D) Coelacanth

Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—

(A) Pacemaker

(B) Vagus nerve

(C) Sympathetic nerve

(D) All of these

Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?

(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi

(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia

(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird

(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect

Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—

(A) Sutton and Boveri

(B) Bateson & Punnet

(C) T.H. Morgan

(D) W. Sutton

Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—

(A) Earthworm 

(B) Tapeworm

(C) Corn worm 

(D) Tongue worm

Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—

(A) Y-chromosome

(B) X-chromosome

(C) Autosome

(D) X-chromosome & autosome both

Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—

(A) AUG, AAU, UAG

(B) GGU, AGU, AUG

(C) UAG, UAA, UGA

(D) GAU, AAU, GUA

Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?

(A) Metaphase-I 

(B) Prophase-I

(C) Metaphase-II 

(D) Anaphase-II

Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?

(A) Didelphys 

(B) Macropus

(C) Pteropus 

(D) Tachyglossus

Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—

(A) Preen gland 

(B) Mucus gland

(C) Green gland 

(D) Sebaceous gland

Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—

(A) The Russell’s pitless viper

(B) The pit viper

(C) Rattle snake

(D) Kraits

Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?

(A) Sudorific gland 

(B) Femoral gland

(C) Green gland 

(D) Stink gland

Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?

(A) Leishmania 

(B) Giardia

(C) Trypanosoma

(D) Noctiluca

Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—

(A) Is free swimming

(B) Is ectoparasite on fish

(C) Is endoparasite on fish

(D) Lives in bottom

Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—

(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer

(B) J.Q. Plowe

(C) Dancilli & Davson

(D) Robertson

Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—

1. Synthesis of lipids

2. Glycogenolysis

3. Sterol metabolism

4. Detoxification

Codes :

(A) Only 4 is correct

(B) 1 and 2 both are correct

(C) 2 and 3 both are correct

(D) All are correct

Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—

(A) Inner thin albumen

(B) Vitelline membrane

(C) Dense alburmen

(D) Chalaziferous layer

Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?

(A) Leech 

(B) Roundworm

(C) Earthworm 

(D) Flatworm

Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?

(A) Autostylic 

(B) Holostylic

(C) Craniostylic 

(D) Hyostylic

Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—

(A) Nitrogen cycle 

(B) Krebs’ cycle

(C) Glycolysis 

(D) Ornithine cycle

Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—

(A) Hydra 

(B) Earthworm

(C) Ascaris 

(D) Fasciola

Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?

(A) Amoeba 

(B) Hydra

(C) Cockroach 

(D) Earthworm

Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—

(A) Asteroidea 

(B) Echinoidea

(C) Holothuroidea 

(D) Crinoidea

Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—

(A) Ambystoma 

(B) Alytes

(C) Sycon 

(D) Sacculina

Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—

(A) Regulation of body fluids

(B) Regulation of acid-base balance

(C) Removal of metabolic wastes

(D) All of these functions

Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—

(A) Trophozoite 

(B) Merozoite

(C) Sporozoite 

(D) Cyst

Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—

(A) Fasciola 

(B) Nereis

(C) Sacculina 

(D) Palaemon

Ans : (C)